Sunday, June 20, 2010

GENERAL QUIZ-7

Q 1) Which Indian state has the highest number of airports?

Q 2) Who won the ‘man of the series’ award at the 1983 Cricket World Cup?

Q 3) Which UNESCO World Heritage Site is shared by India and Bangladesh?

Q 4) Who was the first Indian woman to win the Miss World title in 1966?

Q 5) According to the Hindu mythology, how many years did the Pandavas spend in exile?

Answers:-

1) Gujarat

2) Mohinder Amarnath

3) Sunderbans National Park

4) Reita Faria

5) 12 years

CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ-2

Q 1) Who is the new Mayor of Delhi?

Q 2) Where was the 16th SAARC summit held?

Q 3) Who would be the next chief justice of India ?

Q 4) Who became the Miss India World 2010?

Q 5) What is the name of the Unique Identity Project of India ?

Q 6) Name the Polish President who recently died in an air crash.

Q 7) Name the cricketer who scored the maximum number of sixes in the IPL?

Q 8) Who would prepare the theme song for the Commonwealth Games to be held in Delhi?

Q 9) Which group purchased the Pune IPL franchise after they bid the highest amount of US $370 million?

Q 10) India lifted the trophy of the inaugural Kabbadi World Cup by defeating which country in the finals?

Answers:-

1) Prithviraj Sawhney

2) Thimpu, Bhutan

3) Justice S.H. Kapadia

4) Manasvi Mamgai

5) Aadhaar

6) Lech Kaczynski

7) Robin Uthappa

8) A.R Rahman

9) Sahara Group

10) Pakistan

GENERAL QUIZ-6

1.What is the capital of the Czech Republic?
2.What was the former name of what is now known as India Gate?
3.Name the Polish President who recently died in an air crash?
4.What is the real name of “Chicharaito”, Manchester United’s New Mexican signing?
5.In which country did the common Indian flower ‘Marigold’ (Genda) originate?
6.Who is the famous author of the book “Madhushala”?
7.Which country was known as “Rhodesia” under the English rule?
8.Name any one founder of the company Apple Inc.
9.Which famous soft drink was first made in the 1890s by pharmacist Caleb Bradham in North Carolina?
10.What is the mascot of the 2011 Cricket World Cup?
11.Connect: Robert Pattinson, Kirsten Bell, Stephenie Meyer and Catherine Hardwicke.
12.Connect: Emerging Media, Ultratech Cement, Michael Lumb and Moochu Singh.
13.Connect: Hull City, Stoke City, Wigan Athletic and Wolverhampton.
14.Connect: John Lasseter, Buzz Lightyear, Sheriff Woody and Tom Hanks.
15.Solve the Anagram : EVEN I QUIZ IT
16.Which is the largest land-locked country in the world?
17.Who developed the vaccination for small pox?
18.Who is the author of the novel “The Time Machine”?
19.Which two countries played the first ever international Twenty20 match?
20.“Death Valley” is a desert located in which country?
21.What does the command “Ctrl + Alt + Delete” opens?
22.What is the Latin name of the element Mercury?
23.Which blood group is considered as the Universal blood donor?
24.What is the full form of the mobile company ‘MTS’?
25.India lifted the trophy of the inaugural Kabbadi World Cup by defeating which country in the finals?
26.“Aquafina” is a brand of bottled water manufactured by which company?
27.Which Indian actress started her career with the movie “Aishwarya”?
28.Which group purchased the Pune IPL franchise after they bid the highest amount of US $370 million?


Answers:-

1.Prague
2.All India War Memorial
3.Lech Kaczynski
4.Javier Hernandez
5.Mexico
6.Harivansh Rai Bachan
7.Zimbabwe
8.Steve Jobs / Steve Wozniak / Ronald Wayne
9.Pepsi
10.Jumbo
11.Twilight
12.Rajasthan Royals
13.BPL teams
14.Toy Story
15.Inquizetive
16.Kazakhstan
17.Edward Jenner
18.H. G. Wells
19.Australia and New Zealand
20.United States of America
21.Windows Task Manager
22.Hydrargyrum
23.Blood Group ‘O’
24.Mobile TeleSystems
25.Pakistan
26.Pepsi Co.
27.Deepika Padukone
28.Sahara India Group

CURRENT AFFAIRS QUIZ-1

Q 1) Who is the director of the movie ‘Rajneeti’ ?
-- Prakash Jha

Q 2) Who is the new Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago?
-- Kamla Persad Bissessar

Q 3) The person who invented the ATM died recently. Name him.
-- John Shepherd Barron

Q 4) Who took about 55% stake in the electric car company ‘Reva’ ?
-- Mahindra and Mahindra

Q 5) On which river does China wants to build a controversial dam?
-- Brahmaputra

Q 6) Which animal has been declared as India’s National Aquatic Animal ?
--Gangetic Dolphin

Q 7) With which country would you link the ‘Red Shirts’ revolutionaries?
-- Thailand

Q 8) In which country were ‘Facebook’ and ‘Youtube’ banned recently?
--Pakistan

Q 9) Name of the typhoon that struck the coast of Andhra Pradesh recently?
--Laila

Q 10) BCCI pulled back the Indian Cricket Team from which major tournament recently?
--Asian Games

Q 11) Who is the new Prime Minister of Britain?
--David Cameron

Q 12) Who is the director of the movie ‘Ravan’?
--Mani Ratnam

Q 13) Who is the new city BJP President of Delhi?
--Vijendra Gupta

Q 14) Where would be the IIFA awards held this year?
--Colombo, Sri Lanka

Q 15) Who could be the new Chief Minister of Jharkhand?
--Anjun Munda

Q 16) Where is the Ajlan Shah Tournament held every year?
--Malaysia

Q 17) Where was India’s Nuclear-capable Agni II missile test fired?
--Wheeler Island off Orrisa coast

Q 18) Which Airport was shut down recently because of ash clouds?
--Heathrow Airport, London

Q 19) Who would captain the Indian Cricket Team on their tour to Zimbabwe?
--Suresh Raina

Q 20) In which African country, more than 100 people died in an aircrash recently?
-- Libya

Friday, June 18, 2010

GENERAL QUIZ-5

1. Which Italian word for 'bottle' means a complete and utter failure when used in the English language?

2. In 1999 Time magazine named Albert Einstein 'Person of the Century'. Can you name the two runners up? One point for each correct answer.

3. What are the only two South American countries that do not border Brazil?

4. In gastronomy, what is the French word for 'between the ribs'?

5. Who was the last Englishman to win the 'Golden Boot' in the English Premier League (data valid 2010)?

6. What was the name of the piquant little ship that first brought the news of Nelson's victory at Traflagar back to Britain?
a. HMS Pepper
b. HMS Onion
c. HMS Olive
d. HMS Pickle

7. The following 'brother' lyrics are from which songs? One point for each correct answer.
a. C'mon people now, smile on your brother
b. Sister Suzie, brother John, Martin Luther, Phil and Don, brother Michael, auntie Gin
c. Me and my brother were talkin' to each other 'bout what makes a man a man
d. Oh man I need TV when I got T-Rex, brother you guessed I'm a dude dad
e. This I tell you brother, you can't have one without the other
f. Brother said he recollected when he and Tom and Billie Joe put a frog down my back

8. Residents of which European country are the only Europeans who need to cross two borders in order to reach the sea?

9. David Bowie, Sherlock Holmes, Michael Faraday, Joseph Conrad, Paul Scofield, Aldous Huxley, Trevor Howard, Albert Finney, Stephen Hawking, Robert Morely, William Butler Yeats and Rudyard Kipling are some examples of men who have declined what? Ten letters

10. Which playing card has been called
a. 'The curse of Scotland'
b. 'The devil's bedpost'

11. Once hated and feared by millions of people worldwide, which symbol means 'conducive to well being'?

12. Which UK band from the 1980s with a female lead singer took their name from a Vulcan priestess in Star Trek?

13. Who were the only female priests in the ancient Roman religion?

14. Name the submarine film in which each of the following pairs of actors played a role.
a. Cary Grant and Tony Curtis
b. James Mason and Kirk Douglas
c. Harrison Ford and Liam Neeson
d. Rachel Welch and Donald Pleasance
e. Denzil Washington and Gene Hackman
f. Barbara Eden and Peter Lorre
g. Gregory Peck and Fred Astaire
h. Rock Hudson and Patrick McGoohan

15. Which name connects a three time Wimbledon singles semi-finalist, Duran Duran and the band Queen? Two words

16. Which Who song is the theme song for
a. CSI Las Vegas
b. CSI Miami
c. CSI New York

17. Theophilus is Greek for 'lover of God'. The Latin equivalent was one of the names of an 18th century genius. What is the Latin equivalent?

18. What is a 'NEREID'?

19. What were the three previous names for Istanbul? One point for each correct answer

20. The title of which Beatles song is a Nigerian tribal greeting?

Answers:

1. Fiasco

2. Mohandas Gandhi and Franklin D. Roosevelt

3. Chile and Ecuador

4. Entrecote

5. Kevin Phillips (1999-2000, 30 goals)

6. d. HMS Pickle

7. Six answers
a. Let's Get Together (The Youngbloods)
b. Let 'Em In (Paul McCartney)
c. Tattoo (The Who)
d. All The Young Dudes (Mott The Hoople)
e. Love And Marriage (Frank Sinatra)
f. Ode To Billie Joe (Bobbie Gentry)

8. Lichtenstein

9. Knighthood. (Sherlock Holmes declined in 'The Adventure of the Three Garridebs')

10. Two answers
a. The 9 of diamonds
b. The 4 of clubs

11. The Swastika. Sanskrit, sa (well)+ asti (being)

12. T'Pau

13. Vestal virgins

14. Eight answers
a. Operation Petticoat
b. 20,000 Leagues Under The Sea
c. K-19 Widowmaker
d. Fantastic Voyage
e. Crimson Tide
f. Voyage To The Bottom Of The Sea
g. On The Beach
h. Ice Station Zebra

15. Roger Taylor. (English tennis professional, a drummer for Duran Duran and a drummer for the band Queen)

16. Three answers
a. Who Are You
b. Won't Get Fooled Again
c. Baba O'Riley

17. Amadeus. (Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart)

18. A mermaid like creature

19. Constantinople, Byzantium and Nova Roma (New Rome, Second Rome)

20. Ob-la-di-ob-la-da

GENERAL QUIZ-4

1. Which Benedictine Monk made important contributions to the art of making Champagne?

2. What kind of loaf is literally 'Toni's bread'?

3. Which focal scientific word stems from the Latin for 'little nut'?

4. What is both a French wine region and a luxury American automobile?

5. Put the following in the correct order starting with the heaviest: a golf ball, a baseball, a cricket ball and a tennis ball

6. Which controversial musician single-handedly wrote the 1991 number one hit song 'Do The Bartman'?

7. Kalamata, Nyons, Lugano, Empeltre, Nicoise and Manzanilla are all tasty examples of what?

8. In which country were Grace Kelly films banned after April 18, 1956?

9. The name of which famous newspaper means both 'truth' and 'justice' when translated?

10. The following words are from songs with the word 'yellow' in the song title. Can you name the song? One point for each correct answer.
a. As we live a life of ease
b. Electrical banana is gonna be a sudden craze
c. So long boy you can take my place got my papers I've got my pay
d. Mongrels who ain't got a penny, Sniffing for tidbits like you on the ground
e. Dreamed I was an Eskimo
f. Her eyes are bright as diamonds they sparkle like the dew
g. Hey farmer farmer put away that DDT now
h. Now the whole damn bus is cheering

11. Due to the large number of immigrants from Somalia found in Minneapolis, Minnesota, what is one of Australia's largest exports to this part of the USA?

12. Which American broke 3 track and field world records and tied a fourth within 45 minutes on May 25, 1935?

13. Who have been previously named 'The Detours' and 'The High Numbers'?

14. Which actor played the pilot in each of the following films?
a. Dr. Strangelove
b. Airport (the original)
c. Flightplan
d. The Spirit Of St Loius
e. The Flight Of The Phoenix (1965)
f. The Flight Of The Phoenix (2004)

15. In which football (soccer) competition do teams play for the 'Henri Delaunay Trophy'?

16. Which events made headlines around the world on the following dates?
a. 28th June 1914
b. 21st May 1927
c. 12th April 1961
d. 26th April 1986

17. Legend has it that the body of Alexander the Great was preserved in which liquid?

18. In the Sinead O'Conner/Prince song 'Nothing Compares 2 U', how long has it been "since you took your love away"?

19. 'Chicago Pile No. 1' was the first what in the world in 1942?

20. In film, Admiral Sir Miles Messervy is better known as what?

Answers:

1. Dom Perignon

2. The Italian 'Pannetone'

3. Nucleus

4. Cadillac

5. Cricket ball (155.9-163g), Baseball (142-149g), Tennis ball (56-59.4g), Golf ball (45.93g)

6. Michael Jackson

7. Olives. (different kinds of olives)

8. Monaco. (after the official wedding, Prince Rainier III banned the screening of her films in Monaco)

9. Pravda

10. Eight answers
a. Yellow Submarine
b. Mellow Yellow
c. Yellow River
d. Good Bye Yellow Brick Road
e. Don't Eat The Yellow Snow
f. The Yellow Rose Of Texas
g. Big Yellow Taxi
h. Tie A Yellow Ribbon

11. Camel meat

12. Jesse Owens

13. The Who. (the band 'The Who')

14. Six answers
a. Slim Pickens
b. Dean Martin
c. Sean Bean
d. Jimmy Stewart
e. Jimmy Stewart
f. Dennis Quaid

15. UEFA European Football Championship. (the 'EURO' championship)

16. Four answers
a. The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand
b. Charles Lindbergh flies solo across the Atlantic
c. Juri Gagarin is the first man in space
d. Nuclear disaster in Chernobyl

17. Honey

18. "It's been 7 hours and 15 days"

19. Nuclear reactor (man-made reactor)

20. 'M' (in Bond films)

GENERAL QUIZ-3

1. The working title to which 1965 film, dedicated to the inventor of the sewing machine Elias Howe, was 'Eight Arms To Hold You'?

2. Which fictional monster read classics like John Milton's 'Paradise Lost'?

3. According to legend, what do Lisbon, Edinburgh, Rome and Sheffield all have in common?

4. Which of the following means "A surgical sponge left within a patient after an operation"?
a. SLUBBERDEGULLION
b. VACCIMULGENCE
c. TUMBURUMBA
d. GOSSYPIBOMA

5. What do Ole Gunnar Solskjaer and the Chicago gangster born Lester J. Gillis have in common?

6. How did Lawrence of Arabia die?

7. The following songs are found in which musicals?
a. The Money Song
b. Sunrise, Sunset
c. Der Guetan Tag Hop Clop
d. Then You May Take Me To The Fair
e. I've Grown Accustomed To Her Face
f. There's No Business Like Show Business
g. Good Morning Sunshine

8. In which country is the 'Chrysanthemum Throne'?

9. The names of which beloved fictional mother and son create a macropod animal when joined together?

10. The following words are from songs with the name or names of real historical figures in the song title. Can you name the song? One point for each correct answer.
a. She's ferocious and she knows just what it takes
b. This world was never meant for one as beautiful as you
c. Were pretty looking people but I can tell you they were the devil's children
d. It was business as usual in police room 619
e. With silver hair, a ragged shirt and baggy pants
f. Wouldn't have a Willy or a Sam
g. Er war ein punker
h. A walk in the park can become a bad dream
i. As for Troy Donahue, I know what you wanna do
j. Her photo is hanging on every post office wall

11. Snoopy, the dog in Peanuts, often imagined his doghouse was which make of aeroplane?

12. Which American body builder, famous for playing Hercules, was the highest paid actor in Europe in the late 1950s and early 1960s?

13. Although he changed his name to Toby when he reached America, what was the real name of the most famous member of the Mandinka tribe in literature and television?

14. In the 1965 film 'The Agony And The Ecstacy', which famous actor plays the role of
a. Michelangelo
b. Pope Julius II

15. Which Japanese battle cry translated means 'ten thousand years'?

16. Which creature was created by the chief rabbi of Prague in the late 16th century?

17. Which Norwegian name is a synonym for 'traitor'?

18. What is the Finnish name for Finland?

19. The Gettysburg Address begins with the words "Four score and seven years ago". In which year did Lincoln deliver this speech?

20. What is a Latin word for crossroads which is insignificant and little known? Six letters

Answers:

1. The Beatles film HELP

2. Frankenstein's monster

3. Built on seven hills

4. d. Gossypiboma

5. Both were nicknamed 'Baby Face'. (Gillis was known as 'Baby Face Nelson' and Solskjaer as 'The Baby Face Assassin')

6. Motorcycle accident

7. Seven Answers
a. Cabaret
b. Fiddler On The Roof
c. The Producers
d. Camelot
e. My Fair Lady
f. Annie Get Your Gun
g. Hair

8. Japan

9. Kanga and Roo. (From 'Winnie the Pooh')

10. Ten answers
a. Bette Davis Eyes
b. Vincent (Starry Starry Night)
c. The Ballad Of Bonnie And Clyde
d. Biko
e. Mr. Bojangles
f. Henry The Eighth
g. Rock Me Amadeus
h. Robert De Niro's Waiting
i. Look At Me I'm Sandra Dee
j. Ma Baker (the real public enemy was 'Ma Barker')

11. A Sopwith Camel

12. Steve Reeves

13. Kunte Kinte (From the novel and TV series 'Roots')

14. Two answers
a. Charlton Heston
b. Rex Harrison

15. Banzaii

16. Golem

17. Quisling (Vidkun Quisling)

18. Suomi

19. 1863 ("Four score and seven years ago" refers to American independence in 1776. 1776 plus 87 years)

20. Trivia

GENERAL QUIZ -2

1. If you were snacking on a 'little donkey', what would you be eating?

2. Christiane, Müller, Branco, Marta and Taffarel are all examples of what?

3. Which company used the slogan 'Because I'm worth it'?

4. In which popular film are the following some of the songs in the movie soundtrack?
The Man In Me, Hotel California, Looking Out My Backdoor and Just Dropped In (To See What Condition My Condition Was In)

5. In which stadiums were the three highest attendance figures recorded for a final game at the Football World Cup?

6. The name of which novel set on the island of Pianosa is now a word for an absurd or senseless situation?

7. In which controversial film is Nadsat spoken?

8. Agnes Gonxhe Bojaxhiu was better known as what?

9. With 40 years and 292 days, who was the oldest captain in a Football World Cup?

10. The following words are from songs with 'ball' somewhere in the song title. Can you name the song? One point for each correct answer.
a. It was like lightning, everybody was frightening
b. He always runs while others walk, he acts while other men just talk
c. You shake my nerves and you rattle my brain
d. Magic woman wreckin up my soul, things you tell me have never been told
e. He plays by intuition the digit counters fall

11. Which three words are found on the helmut in Stanley Kubrick's film 'Full Metal Jacket'?

12. What is the six letter word meaning "to snap ones fingers"?

13. Which sci-fi films were based on the following Philip K. Dick stories?
a. Do Androids Dream Of Electric Sheep
b. We Can remember It For You Wholesale

14. Plus or minus 75 years, when was 'trial by battle' abolished by statute in the UK?

15. An 'isohyetal line' is used in which scientific study?

16. In Roman times, what was a 'Quadriga'?

17. Kentucky Fried Chicken. What was Col Sanders first name?

18. Who did Hitler designate as his successor in the last days of World War Two?

19. Which two male tennis players have won four consecutive French Open singles titles since the introduction of the open era in 1968?

20. Which tragic figure in a FIFA World Cup final was nicknamed 'the divine ponytail'?

And now the all important answers:


Answers:

1. A Burrito. (Burrito translated means 'little donkey')

2. Brazilian football players (male and female)

3. L'Oreal

4. The Big Lebowski

5. Maracana Stadium (1950, 199,000-205,000 although the official figure is 173,850) Estadio Azteca (1986, 114,600) Estadio Azteca (1970, 107,412)

6. Catch 22

7. A Clockwork Orange

8. Mother Theresa

9. Peter Shilton

10. Five answers
a. Ballroom Blitz (Sweet)
b. Thunderball (Tom Jones)
c. Great Balls Of Fire (Jerry Lee Lewis)
d. Fireball (Deep Purple)
e. Pinball Wizard (The Who)

11. Born To Kill

12. Fillip

13. Two answers
a. Blade Runner
b. Total Recall

14. 1819

15. Meteorology

16. A chariot drawn by four horses

17. Harland

18. Grossadmiral Karl Donitz

19. Bjorn Borg (78, 79, 80, 81) and Rafael Nadal (2005, 06, 07, 08)

20. Roberto Baggio

GENERAL QUIZ-1

1. The controversial Jubalani ball at this year's FIFA World cup is a Zulu word. What does it mean?

2. Who painted The Red Dragon found in the novel of the same name from Thomas Harris?

3. Which US entertainer, famous for her 'shimmy', was sentenced to ten days in the workhouse in 1927 for "corrupting the morals of youth"?

4. Which FIFA record did Josip Simunic unintentionally break on June 22 2006?

5. What is the English translation for the novel titled 'Voyna i Mir'?

6. The city of Ushuaia, located on the Beagle Channel, is often given which superlative?

7. Which unpopular financial term stems from the French word for purse?

8. Can you name the last eight Australian men who have won the mens' singles title at Wimbledon? One point for each correct answer.

9. Sarek is the father of which half breed?

10. Complete each of the following song titles. One point for each correct answer.
a. Be Bop a
b. Rama Lama
c. I. O.
d. Sha La La La
e. Da Doo Ron
f. Giddy Up A
g. In A Gadda
h. De Do Do Do De

11. What name has been given to the fans who support the US national soccer team?

12. Kriek beer, a Belgium brew, is flavoured with which fruit?
a. Strawberries
b. Plums
c. Cherries
d. Raspberries

13. Saltire, pall, chevron, fesses, pales and canton are examples of patterns found on what?

14. 'The British Invasion'. The Beatles excluded, name five of the ten performers who were the first to have number one hits in the US charts. One point for each correct answer.

15. The only captain to lose two FIFA World Cup finals was German. What was his name?

16. Which old Russian word meaning 'fast' is the other name for the Russian Wolfhound?

17. According to the UN, which continent is suffering deforestation at twice the world rate?

18. Name the seven most populated cities (including metro areas) in the world which end with the letter 'S'. One point for each correct answer.

19. Which strait separates Canada and Greenland?

20. Which spot of bother, originally a line, was first introduced in 1891 as a form of both punishment and reward?




And now the all important answers:

Answers:

1. 'To celebrate'

2. William Blake

3. Mae West

4. Most cautions in one match. He was shown 3 yellows by referee Graham Poll in the Croatia vs. Australia World Cup match.

5. War and Peace

6. The southernmost city in the world

7. Budget (from 'bougette')

8. Lleyton Hewitt (2002),
Pat Cash (1987),
John Newcombe (1967, 1970, 1971),
Rod Laver (1961, 1962, 1968, 1969),
Roy Emerson (1964, 1965),
Neale Fraser (1960),
Ashley Cooper (1958) and
Lew Hoad (1956, 1957)

9. Spock

10. Eight answers
a. Be Bop A Lu La (Gene Vincent)
b. Rama Lama Ding Dong (Edsels)
c. I.O. I. O. (Bee Gees)
d. Sha La La La Lee (Small Faces)
e. Da Doo Ron Ron (Crystals)
f. Giddy Up A Ding Dong (Equals)
g. In A Gadda Da Vida (Iron Butterfly)
h. De Do Do Do De Da Da Da (Police)

11. Sam's Army

12. c. Cherries (Morello cherries)

13. Flags or heraldic symbols

14. In order, Mr. Acker Bilk (Stranger on the Shore), Tornadoes (Telstar), Peter and Gordon (World without Love), The Animals (House of the Rising Sun), Manfred Mann (Do Wah Diddy Diddy), Petula Clark (Downtown), Freddie and the Dreamers (I'm telling you now), Wayne Fontana and the Mindbenders (Game of Love), Herman's Hermits (Mrs Brown you've got a lovely daughter), Rolling Stones ( I can't get no (Satisfaction))

15. Karl-Heinz Rummenigge

16. Borzoi

17. Africa

18. Los Angeles, Lagos, Beunos Aires, Paris, Algiers, Dallas and Caracas.

19. Davis Strait

20. Penalty spot in football (soccer)

Monday, June 14, 2010

IT QUIZ

1)EXPAND VRML:
Ans.Virtual Reality Modelling Language

2)WHO ARE THE DEVELOPERSS OF THE GAME JUST CAUSE 2?
Ans.Avalanche Studios and Eidos Interactive

3)"A PLACE FOR FREIND" IS THE TAGLINE OF
Ans.MY SPACE

4)WHO OWNS A9 . COM
Ans.AMAZON

5)WHO OWNS PAYPAL
Ans.EBAY.COM

6) WHO ACQUIRED 3D DESKTOP TECHNOLOGY FROM BUMPTOP
Ans.GOOGLE

7)WHICH COMPANY HAS ACQUIRED PALM
Ans.HP

8)GRAFFITI IS AN OS FROM
Ans.PALM

9)HTC STANDS FOR
Ans.HIGH TECH CORPORATION

FIFA WORLD CUP 2010

A BRIEF HISTORY OF THE FIFA WORLD CUP

There were plenty of newsworthy events in the year 1930, but which do we still talk about today? Constantinople was officially renamed Istanbul, the planet Pluto was discovered, and Agatha Christie’s first full-length Miss Marple novel rolled off the presses, for example. Oh yes, and world football as we know it came into being with the inaugural FIFA World Cup™ in Uruguay.

Qualifying was as yet unheard of. A grand total of 13 teams accepted invitations to compete, four from Europe, eight from South America and a team representing the United States. The draw for the group stage was left until all the teams had safely arrived in Uruguay. Once underway, the tournament produced football at its contemporary best. By the end, the host nation won through and became the first team to lay hands on the coveted trophy, then known as Victory or simply as the World Cup.

By the time of the second edition in Italy four years later, interest in the global showdown had soared. Thirty-two countries took part in a qualifying round to determine the 16 finalists – and once again, the hosts carried off the honours.

If all good things really come in threes, hosts France should have won the third FIFA World Cup finals. But it was not to be: the French made it to the quarter-finals but were beaten by holders Italy. The Squadra Azzurri duly went on to claim the world crown for the second time in a row, cementing their enduring reputation as formidable exponents of the game.

Brazil emerge
The grim events of the Second World War meant a 12-year gap until the cream of the world game gathered again in 1950. It later emerged that Dr. Ottorino Barassi, the Italian vice-president of FIFA, hid the trophy in a shoe-box under his bed throughout the war, intent on preventing it falling into the hands of occupying troops. In 1946, the trophy was officially renamed in honour of then FIFA President Jules Rimet, who had worked tirelessly to preserve the spirit and structures of the game during the years of conflict.

The starting field in Brazil for the 1950 finals again numbered just 13 nations. Following a league-based preliminary round, Brazil, Sweden, Spain and Uruguay played off for the trophy. A Seleção needed just a point from their meeting with Uruguay to seal the title, but a crowd officially recorded as 199,954 – estimates vary from 174,000 to as many as 205,000 – watched in mounting horror as the Maracanazo (The Maracana Disaster) unfolded. One of the biggest upsets in footballing history ended with the Uruguayans sealing a second triumph.

The next shock outcome rapidly followed. Germans refer to the events of four years later as 'The Miracle of Berne', as Sepp Herberger’s West Germany went to Switzerland in 1954 and beat the seemingly invincible Hungarians 3-2 in the Final. In terms of innovation, the 1954 tournament was the first time fixed squad numbers were assigned to all players.

It was also easily the biggest event of its kind thus far, with a new record number of nations embarking on qualifying. The Asian Confederation was founded that very year and entered teams from Japan and Korea, with Egypt representing Africa in the first truly global edition of the event. Sixteen teams earned the right to compete in Switzerland, and this was the size of the starting field right through until the 1982 finals in Spain, when it rose to 24.

O Rei illuminates Sweden and Mexico
In 1958, the show in Sweden belonged to a certain 17-year-old by the name of Pele, a major contributor to Brazil’s maiden FIFA World Cup triumph. Just Fontaine of France scored 13 goals at the tournament, a record which still stands today, and the finals witnessed a first-ever goalless draw, a meeting between England and Brazil. Sweden 1958 was also the first FIFA World Cup to be broadcast around the world on TV.

Brazil retained the world crown in Chile four years later, but 1966 finally saw a host nation triumph once again, as England defeated West Germany 4-2 in a thrilling and controversial final at Wembley.

The Brazilians were back to the sublime best for the 1970 finals in Mexico, sweeping aside the competition and taking home the Jules Rimet trophy in perpetuity in honour of their third triumph. For the second and last time since 1950, no player was sent off during the tournament. The finals also saw the first use of substitutes, and the introduction of yellow and red cards. Viewers at home could tell the difference too: the FIFA World Cup was broadcast in colour for the first time.

At the tenth edition of the finals in 1974, the honour of becoming the first recipients of the new FIFA World Cup Trophy fell to the West German hosts, although the tournament is often fondly remembered for the startling and revolutionary Total Football practised by beaten finalists the Netherlands, featuring all-time legends Johan Cruyff and Johan Neeskens.

Another of the great footballing nations finally registered a maiden triumph in 1978, as Argentina hosted and won the event. It was to prove the end of the road for a great Dutch generation, runners-up for the second time in a row, and then not present at all for the first 24-team finals in Spain four years later. That tournament was won by a resurgent Italy.

Diego and Zizou excel
As Pele is to Brazil, so is Diego Maradona to Argentina. The diminutive midfielder led La Albiceleste to their second world crown at Mexico 1986, and also featured in a re-run of the final against West Germany at Italy 1990. But on that second occasion, Franz Beckenbauer’s side exacted revenge and the Germans drew level with Brazil and Italy on three FIFA World Cup triumphs apiece. The Argentinians earned the dubious distinction of becoming the first team not to score in a FIFA World Cup final – and also of losing two players to red cards during the match.

Ahead of the 1994 finals in the USA, a record 147 nations started out on the qualifying road. For the first time in history, the Final was decided on penalties, Brazil defeating Italy in the decisive shoot-out to secure a fourth triumph.

The records continued to tumble in the years that followed. The 1998 tournament in France was comfortably the biggest-ever event of its type, with a starting field of 32 and a total of 64 matches played. The name of Zinedine Zidane will forever be associated with the hosts’ victory.

Brazil’s triumph at the 2002 FIFA World Cup Korea/Japan, the first time the event was held in Asia, meant the South Americans could claim the distinction of winning the famous trophy on every continent which had staged the finals up to that point. And in 2006, Italy beat hosts Germany in the semi-finals to settle the clash between two three-time winners in their favour. Fabio Cannavaro and Co went on to beat France on penalties in Berlin and earn a fourth star for the national jersey.

And what of 2010? New records and fresh milestones look a formality, as the world’s biggest single sporting event decamps to yet another new continent. Can Brazil pull further clear with a sixth triumph, or will the Italians retain the trophy and draw level on five? Or could an African side open a new chapter in the long and exciting history of the game? The footballing world can hardly wait for the action to start.

Sunday, June 13, 2010

QUIZ ON CLIMATE CHANGE

Climate change quiz
1. If you turn your lights off when they are not in use you could save on average between
a. 10% of your energy bill
b. 8% of your energy bill
c. 15% of your energy bill
2. If you turned your appliances off rather than leaving them on standby you could save
a. £12 a year and help reduce carbon dioxide emissions
b. £59 a year and help reduce carbon dioxide emissions
c. £37 a year and help reduce carbon dioxide emissions
3. By turning down your thermostat by 1°C could cut your heating bills by up to
a. 10% and save you around £30 a year
b. 20% and save you around £50 a year
c. 35% and save you around £60 a year
4. If we all turned the tap off whilst brushing our teeth we would save enough water to supply
a. 500,000 houses a day
b. 100,000 houses a day
c. 200 houses a day
5. The UK is the world’s
a. 10th largest emitter of carbon dioxide
b. 5th largest emitter of carbon dioxide
c. 8th largest emitter of carbon dioxide
6. In London we produce forty four million tonnes of CO2 every year, which is
a. 5% of the country’s total emissions
b. 8% of the country’s total emissions
c. 10% of the country’s total emissions
7.By installing a water saving hippo bag in your toilet cistern could save you
a. 3 litres of water every flush
b. 6 litres of water every flush
c. 1 litres of water every flush
8. A dripping tap can waste enough water in a day to
a. run a shower for 5 minutes
b. run a shower for 3 minutes
c. run a shower for 7 minutes
9. On average every person in the Uk throws away their own body weight in rubbish every
a. 3 weeks
b. 5 weeks
c. 7 weeks
10. How long do you think it takes a plastic bag to decompose?
a. 10 years
b. 100 years
c. 50 years
a. 100 years
b. 10 years
c. 50 years
11. Washing your car with a bucket and cloth uses as little as
a. 7% of the volume used by a hose
b. 12% of the volume used by a hose
c. 5% of the volume used by a hose
12. How much of the energy do washing machines use to heat the water?
a. Almost 90%
b. Almost 70 %
c. Almost 50%
13. How much could you save by replacing just one light bulb with energy saving recommended ones?
a. £78 over the lifetime of the bulb
b. £30 over the lifetime of the bulb
c. £56 over the lifetime of the bulb

Quiz Answers
1a, 2c, 3a, 4a, 5c, 6b, 7a, 8a, 9c, 10b, 11a, 12a, 13a

1. Question: Which of the following is/are regarded as climate change?
A: Change in average temperature
B: Change in average rainfall pattern
C: Change in average wind pattern
D: All of the above

Answer D: All of the above. Climate change is any long-term significant change in the average weather patterns of a given region. Average weather may include average temperature, precipitation and wind patterns. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

2. Question: Which of the following is NOT a result of climate change?

A: Rise in sea levels
B: Drought
C: Water scarcity
D: Desertification
E: More frequent earthquake

Answer E: More frequent earthquake. Rising sea levels, drought, water scarcity and desertification are possible results of climate change. Earthquakes are natural disasters without any connection to climate. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

3. Question: Which of the following is NOT an activity causing climate change?

A: Driving cars
B: Travelling by plane
C: Turning off unused light
D: Clearing rainforest for farmland

Answer C: Turning off unused lights can help reduce CO2 emissions. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

4. Question: Which of the following are the activities that can help fighting climate change?

A: Taking public transport instead of driving a car
B: Only buying necessary items
C: Planting more trees
D: All of the above

Answer D: All of the above activities can help fight climate change. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

5. Question: Scientists representing the UN’s International Panel on Climate Change predict that by the end of the century temperatures could rise by as much as:

A: 3°C
B: 5°C
C: 5.8°C
D: 6.5°C

Answer C: 5.8°C (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

6. Question: What has been the average global temperature change over the last 100 years?

A: An increase of about 2°C
B: An increase of about 1°C
C: An increase of about 0.5°C
D: A decrease of about 1°C

Answer C: An increase of about 0.5°C. The average global temperature change over the last 100 years is just a half a degree Centigrade, but the projected rise by the end of this century is 5.8°C. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

7. Question: What approximate percentage of carbon emissions is caused by cutting down forests?

A. 10-15 percent
B. 15-20 percent
C. 20-25 percent
D. 25-30 percent

Answer C: 20-25% (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

8. Question: How much have sea levels risen in the last century?

A: 0–5 cm
B: 10–15 cm
C: 15–20 cm
D: 25–35 cm

Answer C: Sea levels have risen 15-20 cm in the last century (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

9. Question: What is the Earth’s average temperature?

A: 11°C
B: 15°C
C: 19°C
D: 22°C

Answer B: 15°C (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

10. Question: Carbon dioxide (CO2) accounts for what percentage of greenhouse gas emissions?

A: 25%
B: 34%
C: 63%
D: 78%

Answer C: 63%. CO2 is the major greenhouse gas causing climate change. Cars, planes, power plants and factories are all responsible for the huge increase in CO2 emissions. (Source: BBC, Earth Day Canada)

11. Question: What was the hottest year on record since the late 1800’s (since records began)
A: 1910
B: 1974
C: 1998
D: 2002
E: 2003

Answer C: 1998 was the hottest. 2002 was second and 2003 was the third hottest (Source: Worldwatch)
12. Question: What was the warmest decade in the Northern Hemisphere in the past 1,000 years?
A: 1920’s
B: 1940’s
C: 1950’s
D: 1970’s
E: 1990’s

Answer E: 1990’s. And the ten warmest years on record have occurred since 1990 (Source: Worldwatch)

13. Question: Can global warming lead to another ice age?

Answer: According to the best available science, this is very unlikely. (Source: Worldwatch)

14. Question: Name three human activities that produce greenhouse gases and especially carbon dioxide?

e.g. any of the following, among others:
- Burning fossil fuels (e.g. coal, oil, gas) to produce electricity
- Heating our homes with oil, coal or gas;
- Driving our cars;
- Switching on our natural gas stoves for cooking (Source: Worldwatch)

15. Question: Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?
A: Coal
B: Natural Gas
C: Wind
D: Oil

Answer C: Wind. Fossil fuels are non-renewable resource, formed millions of years ago from the remains of dead plants and animals.

16. Question: List four things YOU can do as an individual to conserve energy and pollute less?

e.g. any of the following, among others:
- Turning off lights and computers when they are not in use
- Using public transportation or carpooling,
- Driving less,
- Recycling waste
- Purchasing energy efficient appliances and light bulbs
- Driving a more fuel-efficient car,
- buying food grown locally,
- insulating your water heater and home,
- reducing use of air conditioning systems
17. Question: What are scientists warning might become increased concerns in Britain in the next 50 years as the climate warms?
A: Scorpions
B: Sharks
C: West Nile Virus
D: All of the above
Answer D: All of the above. A report from the Energy Saving Trust warned of all three, as well as the possibility of termites and poisonous spiders becoming increasing problems. (Source: BBC)
18. Question: Human CO2 emissions are small compared with natural CO2 exchange. Is this statement true or false?
A: True
B: False
Answer A: True. It is true that human emissions of CO2 are a small percentage of the total carbon cycled through plants, soils, rocks, the oceans and the air. But they are not insignificant - since 1750, the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide has increased by 31%. (Source: BBC)
19. Question: Some scientists say that North Sea cod stocks are slumping faster than over-fishing can account for. They say climate change maybe to blame - but why?
A: Rising temperatures have disrupted the fish's breeding cycle
B: Sea birds migrating later are eating large numbers of cod fry
C: The plankton composition of the North Sea is changing, reducing food stocks for cod larvae
D: All of the above
Answer C: The plankton composition of the North Sea is changing, reducing food stocks for cod larvae. Plankton are microscopic free-floating marine organisms. The decline of a particular North Sea species of phyto-plankton is key to changes further up the food chain. Many species are suffering, including cod. (Source: BBC)
20. Question: Cows are guilty of speeding up global warming. Fact or fiction?
A: Fact
B: Fiction
Answer A: Fact. Methane is the second most significant greenhouse gas and cows are one of the greatest methane emitters. Their grassy diet and multiple stomachs cause them to produce methane, which they exhale with every breath. (Source: BBC)
21. Question: Roughly how fast is the Arctic warming in comparison to the rest of the world?
A: Half as fast
B: The same
C: Twice as fast
D: Three times as fast
Answer C: Twice as fast. According to a recent assessment, annual average temperatures in the Arctic have risen nearly twice as much as those in the rest of the world, although there are variations across the region. There are fears this could lead to the extinction of species such as polar bears, and that it will change the way of life of the people living there. (Source: BBC)
22. Question: Acid rain might have an unforeseen effect on climate change. What is it?
A: Speeding it up because the sulphur in acid rain can act as a greenhouse gas
B: Slowing it down by reducing methane levels
C: Speeding it up by increasing the heat given off by cities
D: Slowing it down because dissolved sulphur makes ice melt slower
Answer B: Slowing it down by reducing methane levels. Acid rain may slow climate change by helping to keep methane levels low. The greenhouse gas methane is produced in large quantities by microbes found in wetlands such as peats and marshes. But these microbes are inhibited by a type of bacteria that thrives on the sulphate present in acid rain. (Source: BBC)
23. Question: Which country has the highest CO2 emissions per capita?
A: Australia
B: Canada
C: Kuwait
D: United Arab Emirates
E: USA
Answer D: United Arab Emirates. Figures compiled by the Carbon Dioxide Information Analysis Center show UAE's per capita emissions are highest at 6.17 metric tonnes of carbon, followed by Kuwait with 5.97, the US with 5.4, Australia with 4.91 and the UK with 3.87. If total greenhouse gas emissions are compared, however, some analysts say Australia comes out higher than the US. (Source BBC)

24. Question: Emissions trading has become a key concept in reducing greenhouse gases worldwide. Which country invented it?
A: Germany
B: Sweden
C: Switzerland
D: UK
E: USA
Answer E: USA. The US has been operating emissions credit trading programmes to tackle non-greenhouse pollutants since 1977. (Source: BBC)

Climate Change Quiz Questions and Answers
Thursday, 18 November 2004, 10:41 am
Press Release: Climate Change
Quiz Questions and Answers
If 1000 people, who usually take their cars from Petone to Wellington, and back every day, take the train instead over the period of a week. What sort of reduction in greenhouse gas emissions would this equal?
A. A 3 tonne reduction
B. A 13 tonne reduction
C. A 23 tonne reduction
Answer: C
The greenhouse gas emissions produced by 1000 people travelling from Wellington to Petone and back again over the period of a week (that's 10 trips) in cars is roughly 25 tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2). For the same number of people travelling by train - on the same route and the same number of times - this would be approximately 2 tonnes of CO2. You do the maths - that's a huge reduction in CO2!


You decide you want to go on holiday for a week. Which travel option produces the least amount of greenhouse gas emissions?
Flying to a main city centre in New Zealand and doing a walking tour of the city sites
Driving around the country for a week visiting family and friends
Flying to Australia and camping in a national park
Answer: B
A return air trip to any destination emits many more carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions than driving a car because of the huge amount of fuel a plane uses. For example, a return trip from Christchurch to Melbourne will emit about 664 kg of CO2 per person, a return flight from Auckland to Dunedin will emit about 281 kg of CO2 per person. However, driving from Auckland to Wellington, and back again, only emits about 55 kg of CO2 per person. Camping and walking tours are good activities, as they don’t produce any CO2.
[NB: plane emissions are based on an average passenger loading per trip and car emissions are based on one person in the car per trip.]

You’re mowing your lawn. To ensure you’re producing the least amount of greenhouse gas emissions, what should you do with the grass clippings?
Take your clippings to a landfill
Don’t use a catcher when mowing and allow the clippings to scatter over the lawn
Mix the clippings with the compost heap in your garden
Answer: B
Grass clippings (and other organic waste such as food scraps) produce the potent greenhouse gas ‘methane’ as they break down in landfills. This is because there are such large piles of organic waste in landfills that oxygen can’t get into the waste to help the breakdown process. The more organic waste there is in landfills, the more methane is produced. When grass clippings or kitchen scraps decompose in your own compost heap, a lot more oxygen can get into the waste, so less methane is produced. Scattering the clippings on your lawn is the best option because the clippings don’t build up in a pile and therefore no methane is produced.

How much more fuel would your car use travelling at 100km/hr compared to cruising at 90 km/hr?
A. Up to 5%
B. Up to 10%
C. Up to 15%
Answer: C
The faster you go, the more fuel your car will use. The extra time it would take to travel 50km at 90 km/hr compared to 100 km/hr is only about 3 ½ minutes, but you will save up to 15% on fuel!
Other ways to reduce your vehicle’s fuel consumption include keeping its tyres inflated to the highest pressure recommended by the manufacturer, making sure your wheels are properly aligned, removing your roof rack when you don’t need it and getting your vehicle serviced regularly. Braking and accelerating excessively uses up more fuel, therefore producing more carbon dioxide - which contributes to climate change. Go easy on the pedal!
[NB: this answer has been calculated for a 2-litre car.]


You’re waiting for your friend to come out of the dairy. After how long would it be more efficient to turn your engine off then restart it, rather than continuing to idle?
30 seconds to 1 minute
2 minutes
5 – 7 minutes
Answer: A
Even though your engine uses fuel when it needs to be re-started, the amount is so small that the break-even point is between 30 seconds and one minute. So next time you’re in your car with your engine running waiting for someone for longer than one minute – turn it off. You will save on fuel and will help to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. N:B This doesn’t apply to hybrid vehicles which rely on their electric engine when idling.


Which road trip from Wellington to Masterton would use the least amount of fuel?
A. Driving in the day with almost no other traffic on the road, but keeping to the speed limit
Driving in the evening and overtaking vans and trucks that are going slower than you are
Answer: A
The vans and trucks going more slowly than you mean you will have to brake and accelerate (to overtake) more than if there was no other traffic on the road. Braking and accelerating excessively uses up more fuel, therefore producing more carbon dioxide, which contributes to climate change. Go easy on the pedal!
One third of all car trips in New Zealand are less than what distance?
A. One kilometre
B. Two kilometres
C. Five kilometres
Answer: A
One third of all New Zealand car trips are less than a kilometre (two thirds are under six kilometres). If possible, try to walk, ride a bike or take public transport on those shorter trips. Such measures will reduce the amount of carbon dioxide being released into the atmosphere and will also save you money on petrol!


You want to purchase a vehicle that best suits your needs. You drive your two children 15 minutes to and from school five days a week, take them to sports in the weekends and then during the holidays drive them five hours each way to stay with their grandparents. Which engine size would best suit your needs and produce the least amount of greenhouse gas emissions?
5 litre 4WD or SUV
3 litre station wagon
2 litre large passenger car
Answer: C
The 2-litre vehicle will meet all your needs for the majority of uses and will consume less fuel (therefore producing less carbon dioxide). The average 4WD and SUV use more fuel than a standard station wagon, which has just as much carrying space as the other options.


If every household with a water cylinder more than 15 years old insulated their cylinder with a wrap, it would save what percentage of New Zealand’s residential energy use?
A. 0.5%
B. 1.5%
C. 5%
Answer: C
Water heating is the single biggest energy consumer in a home, so insulating your hot water cylinder with a wrap is well worth doing and will save you money on your power bill. You could also insulate the pipes near the cylinder. Also, if you go away for a week or longer, turn your water cylinder off. It is pointless to waste energy you are not going to use and it will take only about two hours for an average cylinder to heat the water up to 60°C when you come back. Another way to save energy used on water heating is to have showers instead of baths and take shorter showers.


Which lighting option produces the least amount of greenhouse gas emissions?
A. Candles
B. Compact fluorescent light bulbs
C. Normal light bulbs
Answer: B
Compact fluorescent light bulbs consume about one quarter of the energy consumed by conventional light bulbs and last around eight times longer. So it’s well worth buying these energy efficient bulbs (available at supermarkets and hardware stores), especially when you consider that lighting consumes around 10% of the power in your home. Candles directly produce carbon dioxide (CO2), as a result of burning, and they give out hardly any light, therefore they’re not efficient.


You’re preparing for a party and going back and forth between rooms. What is the best way to make sure your lights aren’t needlessly wasting energy?
Keep the lights on as you go from room to room until the job is done
Turn the lights off every time you leave a room and then on again when you return
Answer: B
The amount of energy needed to activate a light bulb (including standard and compact fluorescent bulbs) is minimal. So it’s better to turn off lights when you leave a room and turn them on again when you return to save energy. Turning any bulb on and off reduces its life by a very small amount and the energy you save by turning lights off when you leave rooms will greatly outweigh any loss of life of your bulb.
Buy compact fluorescent light bulbs (available at supermarkets and hardware stores), which consume about one quarter of the energy consumed by conventional light bulbs and last around eight times longer!


You’re watching TV in one room of the house. Which heating option will keep you warm and use the least amount of electricity?
A. A three bar heater placed directly in front of you
B. A three-fin oil filled heater placed in the centre of the room
C. A wall-panel heater with a thermostat
Answer: A
A bar heater is the most efficient option. This is because a bar heater heats the things it ‘sees’ i.e. if placed in front of you, it will warm you but not the whole room. Convector heaters (such as wall-panel heaters) are usually much less efficient compared to bar, or ‘radiant’, heaters. A convector heater warms the air, which then rises above the occupied space. Oil column heaters provide both convected and radiant heat, so they’re not quite as efficient as a bar heater. Thermostats will save energy - they stop heaters from overheating a room by turning the heater off once the set temperature is reached. The most efficient heaters are actually heat pumps which produce about three times as much heat as the energy they consume (they can also act as an air conditioner in summer). The additional cost of a heat pump will be repaid in energy savings in time.


If we could lift the energy efficiency rating of every household appliance in New Zealand by just half a star, it would be the same as taking how many cars off the road (in terms of saving energy)?
A. 2,000
B. 6,000
C. 12,000
Answer: C
Use the yellow and red energy rating label to compare models when buying whiteware such as fridges, dishwashers and dryers – the higher the number of stars, the better the energy efficiency of the model. The additional cost of an energy efficient model is easily repaid in energy savings.


How much money does the average New Zealand home spend on standby power (such as lights & clocks on appliances and using the remote to turn on/off your TV) a year?
$20-$30
$50-$60
$80-$90
Answer: C
The average New Zealand house spends between $80 and $90 a year on standby power each year. In the wee hours of the morning appliances such as computers, televisions, VCRs, DVDs, stereos, microwaves, washing machines, dryers, electric jugs and toasters are silently sucking power out of electrical sockets while households sleep. Remember to turn these appliances off at the wall!


What percentage of the power your home uses goes on running appliances?
A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
Answer: C
Household appliances use 20% of your home’s energy (10% of that goes on running appliances on stand-by e.g. lights & clocks on appliances and using the remote to turn on/off your TV). Make sure you turn off all appliances at the wall when you’re not using them. Wash clothes in cold water (try to wash full loads) and hang clothes out to dry instead of using the dryer when possible. Do you really need that towel rail on all day? You could hang your towel on the clothesline to dry in summer or in a heated room in winter. Close windows, doors and curtains to keep in the heat during the colder months.
Also, when buying appliances, use the yellow and red energy rating label to compare models – the higher the number of stars, the better the energy efficiency of the model. The additional cost of an energy efficient model is easily repaid in energy savings.


You want to insulate your home, but can’t afford to insulate the entire house. Which option will be the most beneficial in order to keep the house warm?
A. Insulation in the floor
B. Insulation in the ceiling
C. Insulation in the walls
Answer: B
Up to 42% of heat losses occur through the ceiling whereas about 24% is lost through the walls and 10% through the floor. If every home in New Zealand had ceiling insulation, we would save 7% of residential energy use.


You’re going on holiday and want to save electricity while you’re away. How long do you have to be away to make it financially beneficial to turn off your hot water cylinder?
A. One week
B. Two weeks
C. Three weeks
Answer: A
If you go away for a week, it is still worth turning your water cylinder off, as it is pointless to waste energy you are not going to use. It will take about two hours for an average cylinder to heat the water up to 60°C when you come back.


You’ve hosted a dinner party and have a lot of dishes to wash. Which option uses the least amount of electricity?
A. Using your dishwasher on economy cycle
B. Washing the dishes in the sink by hand
Answer: A
Surprisingly, a modern dishwasher will be more efficient as it will draw cold water and use the minimum amount of energy. On most cycles, it would usually use a lot less energy to run its internal water heating element for a full load of dishes than it would if you used hot water straight from the tap to wash the same amount of dishes by hand (even taking into consideration the energy used to power the dishwasher).


How much money a year do you spend on running your beer fridge?
A. $35
B. $55
C. $75
Answer: C
Around 350,000 New Zealand households have a second fridge, most of which are not very energy efficient and consume a minimum of $75 worth of electricity a year. Are you sure you can’t fit that six pack into your main fridge?


You live in Wellington and you’re flying to Singapore. How many pine trees would absorb the amount of greenhouse gas emissions produced by the plane flight (per person)?
One
Five
Twenty
Answer: A
Even little steps count! You only need to plant one tree to absorb the carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions produced from such a trip - this is the amount of CO2 the tree would remove from the atmosphere over its lifetime (about 28 years for a pine tree). Remember though, trees that are chopped down release the CO2 they’ve absorbed back into the atmosphere.
[NB: plane emissions are based on an average passenger loading per trip.]


Each month, New Zealanders dispose of enough rubbish to fill a rugby field to 30 stories high. How much of this could be composted (on average)?
A. A rugby field to 3 stories high
B. A rugby field to 9 stories high
C. A rugby field to 14 stories high
Answer: C
45% of the average rubbish bag could be composted – that’s a huge waste of space in our landfills. What’s more, much larger amounts of the potent greenhouse gas methane are produced by organic waste (such as kitchen scraps and grass clippings) in landfills. This is because the piles of waste at landfills are so huge, that oxygen can’t get into the waste to help the breakdown process. The more organic waste there is in landfills, the more methane is produced. It is much better to let this waste decompose in your own compost heap as a lot more oxygen can get into the waste (smaller pile), so less methane is produced. If you mow your lawn, leave the clippings to scatter over the lawn if possible as this produces no methane.
As for the other 55% of your rubbish bag, make sure you put any plastic, glass, tin and paper items into your recycling bin.


You decide to take a five-day holiday in your local region. Which tourism option produces the least amount of greenhouse gas emissions?
A tramping trip in a local national park but enjoying the comforts of a luxury hotel each night
A visit to a local winery each day by bus and staying in bed and breakfast accommodation at night
Using your home as a base, but departing each day to enjoy some fun activities with the family including a scenic helicopter ride, jet boating, a picnic in a park and a trip to the local zoo
Answer: B
In option A, the energy one person would use in a luxury hotel for four nights would translate to about 32 kg of carbon dioxide (CO2), but the tramping trip involves no transport use (therefore there are no CO2 emissions from fuel). Total = about 32 kg CO2
In option B, staying in a B&B each night would emit about 17 kg of CO2. The bus tour of the wineries (approximately 50 km’s) would emit about 6 kg of CO2 per person (including the emissions produced at each winery visit). Total = about 23 kg CO2
In option C, the CO2 produced in a private home is much less than the other two options at about 6 kg of CO2 per person. However, water activities such as jet boating emit about 15 kg of CO2 per person and air activities, such as a scenic helicopter flight, produces about 28 kg of CO2 per person. A trip to a local zoo (or park) emits about 0.2 kg of CO2 per person. Total = about 49 kg of CO2

Climate change facts

The scientific evidence that climate change is real and poses serious risks for the future comes from a wide body of scientific research produced by many hundreds of scientists.
The key bits of evidence are as follows:
(1) Unequivocal evidence of warming over the 20th century.
Globally the world has warmed by 0.74 degrees C (uncertainty range 0.56 to 0.92) from 1906 to 2005. Warming is seen over the majority of the globe – over land areas and over the ocean. Evidence for warming is supported by wide spread melting of snow and ice. Sea levels have also risen over the 20th century (by 0.12 to 0.22m). We would expect sea level to rise as oceans warm and expand. Other aspects of climate have changed over the 20th century, for example: many mid and high latitude areas have got wetter while sub-tropical areas have got drier.
(2) Greenhouse gas concentrations are increasing in the atmosphere
We know with certainty that carbon dioxide concentrations have increased by over 30% over the 20th century and that current atmospheric levels are the highest they have been for at least the last 650,000 years. We also know with certainty that these increases in carbon dioxide are the result of human activity (mainly burning fossil fuels). Other greenhouse gases (such as methane and nitrous oxide) have also increased, very likely as a result of human activities (mainly from agriculture).
(3) Most of the warming since the mid-20th century is very likely due to human activity
Climate scientists look at both natural factors that cause climate to change and they look at the effect that people are having on climate. The scientific evidence shows that much of the warming since the mid-20th century is very likely due to increasing greenhouse gases from human activity. Scientists have looked at different possible causes for the warming. Natural changes (like changes in the Sun’s output) cannot explain 20th century warming. The only way to reproduce the warming over the 20th century is to include the effects that people are having on the climate.
(4) Climate change likely to worsen over the 21st century
Using climate models and taking a range of future greenhouse gas emissions, global temperatures could increase by 1.5 to 4 degrees C by 2100. Some areas will warm more than others. Rainfall patterns are likely to change, but we have less confidence in predictions of rainfall than of temperature. Regional and local details of future climate are also more uncertain than global and large-scale changes.
(5) Risk of serious impacts from climate change
There is evidence that climate change is already affecting things like river flow and lake temperatures, ice and snow cover and wildlife (growing season and migration for example). In the future serious impacts are projected on food, water, human health and biodiversity.

I’ve been thinking about something. A few weeks ago, we were learning about the reasons why deserts are where they are, etc. One thing that my teacher mentioned was that a reason for the mildness of UK’s climate was that it is surrounded by the sea, which regulates the country’s temperatures. Landlocked countries have more extreme (relatively speaking) temperatures and thus weathers, due to there being a lack of sea/water body to regulate the country.
Now, what if we introduced Global warming into the agenda? Global warming isn’t simply warming the world – it affects the world by using extreme changes (Again, relatively speaking) in temperatures. If Global warming advances far enough, doesn’t that mean that the UK, despite the sea, will be exposed to weather like that of a land-locked country (Like Mongolia, for example) pre-global warming? And that current land-locked countries will have even more extremes than before?
climate change does mean more extremes – e.g., more very hot days, more hot summers, more heavy rainfall with greater risk of flooding.
However, it’s not really the case that UK climate plus climate change will then be like the climate of central Europe or the Mediterranean.
Future UK climate will still be strongly affected by the sea. So while we expect summers to get hotter and probably drier, and winters milder and wetter, we’l still have essentially a maritime climate (with less contrast between summer and winter than a continental climate). We’ll still have the warm Gulf Stream current, although climate models suggest it might weaken.
Each of the five principal scientific conclusions underlying this blog posting are questionable.
“Unequivocal warming during the 20th century.” Perhaps, but the evidence of systematic tampering with worldwide surface temperature records means we simply don’t know how temperatures changed before the satellites came along in the early 1980s to give us proper global temperature measurements. Besides, the mere fact of warming tells us nothing of its cause, which may be chiefly a natural recovery from the Little Ice Age.
“Greenhouse gases are increasing in the atmosphere”: Yes, but so what? The question is not whether greenhouse gases cause warming, but how much warming they cause and, again, there is evidence of tampering with the data and the calculations to produce an official range of estimates that is well beyond measured physical reality. CO2 concentration is rising at half the rate predicted by the UN’s climate panel; the estimate of its radiative forcing depends upon the belief, unsupported by reliable evidence from measurements, that warming in the tropical upper troposphere will be thrice the surface rate if and only if anthropogenic greenhouse forcing is the cause; the estimate of the Planck parameter that converts the warming to temperature is based on a physical absurdity and is between 38% and 300% too large; and the UN’s values for the water-vapor and cloud-albedo feedbacks, published for the first time only in its 2007 report and with no attempt to assign any level of understanding to them, have been demonstrated to be wild exaggerations. It is entirely possible, therefore, that the UN’s predicted range of warmings to 2100 is at least a tenfold exaggeration, and it cannot be less than a threefold exaggeration.
“Most of the warming since 1950 is anthropogenic.” Measurement shows this result, based entirely upon models that are told to assume the multiple and multiplied exaggerations mentioned above, to be flatly untrue. A reduction in cloud cover from 1983-2001, globally, caused a radiative forcing at the surface of at least 1 Watt per square metre, which, if the UN’s exaggerated Planck parameter and feedback multiplier are to be believed, would cause a warming of 0.8 K. Yet the warming since 1950 is just 0.65 K. CO2 and other greenhouse gases were, and are, bit-part players in today’s climate.
“Climate change will worsen over the 21st century.” This modelled prediction is baseless, since it is long proven that in a mathematically-chaotic object such as the climate reliable very-long-term prediction (i.e. more than a few weeks ahead) is not possible by any method. It matters not that weather and climate are distinct: the bifurcations in a chaotic object multiply over time, rendering even the most general forecasts increasingly meaningless.Besides, the models are tuned to assume the exaggerated climate sensitivity imagined by the UN’s climate panel, so their forecasts of gloom and doom are doubly baseless. So far there has been a rapid global cooling trend since 1 January 2001, the turn of the millennium. Yet regular reports of the supposed effects of “global warming” continue to appear. Warming is better than cooling, as we shall discover unless the cooling trend of the first decade of the 21st century reverses itself.
“There is a risk of serious impacts from climate change.” There always was, and there always will be. Bifurcations in a chaotic object can cause frighteningly sudden, and very unpredictable, changes. But such drastically sudden changes are no more likely with warmer weather than with colder weather, and the UN’s climate panel has recently been compelled to admit that many of its projections of extreme-weather events had been supplied to it and authored not by scientists but by environmental extremists and politicized journalists, so that all that evidence is now going to have to be, as they put it, “re-evaluated”.
Finally, I am uneasy that a publicly-funded university should be using a website like this merely to parrot the now-discredited findings of the now-discredited UN climate panel. We do not pay scientists to be propagandists parroting the pietisms and pseudo-scientific nonsenses of the world-government wannabes of the UN: we pay them to get on with original research.

In “The Challenges of Climate for Energy Markets” RFF Senior Fellow Timothy J. Brennan examines the economics underpinning climate policy design and their impact on the electricity sector. With a background in the economics of industrial organization, Brennan says he “can take advantage of outsider status to challenge some of the often-implicit presumptions in the climate and energy efficiency policy conversation.” The following quiz is taken from “The Challenges of Climate for Energy Markets” and was published in the January 1, 2010 issue of Managing Power Magazine:

Aspects of how climate and conservation issues are presented that seem completely natural to the environmental and energy policy community can look peculiar from the perspective of an economist who studies markets and market failure more generally. I can illustrate this with a four-question quiz.

Quiz:

Question 1: A common saying among energy conservation advocates is, “The cheapest power plant is the one you don’t build.” Would you similarly infer that …

a) The cheapest school is the one you don’t build?
b) The cheapest vaccine is the one you don’t administer?
c) The cheapest regulatory conference is the one you don’t hold?

Answer: No, I trust. Any reasonable assessment of a school, vaccine, conference, or power plant would factor in the benefits as well as the costs. To infer policy merit from this sort of claim requires an assumption that the benefits of the electricity generated by the power plant are nonexistent.

Many in the energy policy community who are not economists appear to believe that power plants have only costs rather than benefits as well. The reasons seem to be that consumers’ preferences for electricity use or against conservation technologies lack standing, or that they would use less electricity if only they had the information and wisdom of the experts.
Economic tests, such as cost-benefit analyses, that base policy on revealed consumer preferences, typically reject both of these reasons.

Question 2: Suppose someone goes to see An Inconvenient Truth, the movie that former U.S. presidential candidate and vice president Al Gore made to increase public awareness of the potential harm from climate change. After seeing the movie, out of concern that she does her part to save the planet, she goes out and changes all the light bulbs and appliances in her house to devices that use less electricity and reduce her carbon footprint. In energy policy circles, what do we call this selfless, concerned individual?

Answer: A “free rider”! Yes, someone willing to make sacrifices to reduce her carbon footprint—or, for that matter, someone who makes the effort to calculate that she’d be better off financially in the long run by using compact fluorescent lighting or installing a high-efficiency air conditioner—is lumped together with those who take advantage of others by refusing to chip in to supply a public good.

The reason is that these actions are assessed purely on the basis of the effects of utility companies’ energy efficiency subsidy programs. If someone, such as the person in the question, had switched technologies absent the subsidy program, she would get the benefit of reduced prices even without a utility energy efficiency subsidy. Thus, in industry parlance, she is a “free rider” on the subsidy. If you don’t want to be thought a free rider by utilities, be either selfish or lazy.

Question 3: Suppose we have policies directed toward the goal of reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Two examples discussed in the U.S. and Australia are marketable emissions permits and (usually tradable) requirements that a statutorily designated percentage of energy be generated by renewable fuels such as wind, biomass, passive solar, or sometimes water. What would you call these policies?

Answer: “Complementary”—or at least you would call them that if you were part of the U.S. climate discussion. But when two activities generate the same outcome, the more one has of the first, the less one needs of the second. In economics, these are substitutes. Were the more accurate term employed, it would illuminate the idea that legislating is to choose among alternatives.

Leaving political realities aside, the economic choice is simple—figure out how to get prices to incorporate the external harms of climate change, and let producers and consumers adapt by choosing the technological and conservation options that best meet their needs, taking the cost of climate effects into account. Legislators, though, gain not by making choices but by maximizing the spread of benefits, which the misleading designation “complementary” facilitates. Employing multiple options ensures that the widest possible array of potential political backers will benefit from legislation, likely at the expense of consumers and the economy at large.

Question 4: While we’re on the subject of political support, what does one call structuring climate change legislation to provide benefits to industries on the basis of claims that they would be harmed if they had to pay, directly or indirectly, to pollute?

Answer: “Competitiveness.” The (likely) possibility that one or more countries fail to adopt climate policies, and thus can export products at prices below the true marginal cost of production, may warrant adaptive pricing or trade policies in countries that undertake significant climate policies. These trade policies are justified only to reduce distortions, not to keep firms whole. Paul Krugman said in 1993, “If we can teach undergrads to wince when they hear someone talk about ‘competitiveness,’ we will have done our nation a great service.” That lesson continues to be true.

Wednesday, May 5, 2010

INDIAN HISTORY AND CULTURE QUIZ

INDIAN HISTORY AND CULTURE QUIZ

1. Who among the following taught the doctrine of ‘Shunyata’ ?
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Shankaracharya
(C) Harisena
(D) Vallabhacharya

2. Who of the following kings was an ardent follower of Jainism ?
(A) Bimbsara
(B) Mahapadma Nanda
(C) Kharavela
(D) Pulakesin II

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Name of author)
(a) Abul Fazl
(b) Nizamuddin Ahmad
(c) Krishnadeva Raya
(d) Kalhan
List-II (Name of the book)
1. Tabqat-i-Akbari
2. Akbarnama
3. Rajatarangini
4. Amuktamalyada
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Shiekh Shihabuddin Suharwardi—Sufi Saint
(B) Chaitanya Maha Prabhu—Bhakti Saint
(C) Minhaj-us siraj—Founder of Sufi order
(D) Lalleshwari—Bhakti Saint

5. To which dynasty did Ashoka belong ?
(A) Vardhana
(B) Maurya
(C) Kushan
(D) Gupta

6. Which one of the following battles was fought between Babar and the Rajputs in 1527 ?
(A) The First Battle of Panipat
(B) The Battle of Khanwa
(C) The Battle of Ghagra
(D) The Battle of Chanderi

7. Aryabhatta and Varahamihira belong to which age ?
(A) Guptas
(B) Cholas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Mughals

8. Panini, the first Grammarian of Sanskrit language in India, lived during the—
(A) 2nd century B.C.
(B) 6th-5th century B.C.
(C) 2nd century A.D.
(D) 5th-6th century A.D.

9. Consider the following statements about Amir Khusro—
1. He was a disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya.
2. He was the founder of both Hindustani Classical Music and Qawwali.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

10. The Treaty of Bassein (1802) was signed between—
(A) Madhav Rao and the British
(B) Baji Rao II and the British
(C) Mahadji Scindia and the British
(D) Holkar and the British

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Sun temple)
(a) Dakshinaarka Temple
(b) Surya Pahar Temple
(c) Suryanaar Temple
(d) Suryanarayanaswamy Temple
List-II (Location)
1. Goalpara (Assam)
2. Arasavilli (Andhra Pradesh)
3. Kumbhkonam (Tamil Nadu)
4. Madhera (Gujarat)
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 5 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 5 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

12. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ in the State Emblem of India, have been adopted from which one of the following ?
(A) Brahma Upanishad
(B) Mudgala Upanishad
(C) Maitreyi Upanishad
(D) Mundaka Upanishad

13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Symbol)
(a) Elephant
(b) Tree
(c) Empty throne
(d) Horse
List-II (Important event of life of Buddha)
1. Renouncement of worldly pleasures
2. Birth of Buddha
3. Enlightenment
4. Representation of Royalty
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 4 1

14. Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by Raja Odeyar ?
(A) Tanjore
(B) Jenji
(C) Mysore
(D) Madura

15. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jayprakash Narayan
(C) Vinoba Bhave
(D) Datta Dharmodhikari

16. The temples of Khajuraho were built by—
(A) Chandelas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Chalukayas
(D) Qutubuddin

17. Kuchipudi dance originated in—
(A) Orissa
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh

18. Which was the only Indus city without a citadel ?
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Harappa
(C) Mohanjodaro
(D) Chanhudaro

19. Ashoka called the third Buddist council at—
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Pataliputra
(C) Magadha
(D) Sarnath

20. The tutor of Alexander the great was—
(A) Darius
(B) Cyrus
(C) Socrates
(D) Aristotle

21. Place Chronalogically the following treaties—
1. Treaty of Amritsar
2. Treaty of Bassein
3. Treaty of Seringapatam
4. Treaty of Salbai
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 2, 1, 4, 3

22. The Delhi general who successfully advanced up to Madurai was—
(A) Khizr Khan
(B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Malik Kafur
(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

23. Which of the following literary works belongs to classical Sanskrit literature ?
(A) Dhammapada
(B) Vedas
(C) Meghadutam
(D) Dighanikaya

24. Consider according to Buddhism—
Assertion (A) : There is no rebirth.
Reason (R) : There is no soul.
Now select your answer from the following codes :
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

25. Which one of the following propounded that destiny determines everything, man is powerless ?
(A) Jainas
(B) Buddhists
(C) Ajivakas
(D) Mimansakas
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) Buddhism trusts in rebirth as well as in nonexistence of God.25. (C)
History and Culture of India-Objective GK Questions
26. Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was the disciple of—
(A) Sheikh Alauddin Sabir
(B) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti
(C) Baba Farid
(D) Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi

27. Which one of the following was favoured by Nehru but not favoured by Gandhiji ?
(A) Truth
(B) Non-violence
(C) Untouchability
(D) Heavy industrialization

28. Ashtadhayi was written by—
(A) Vedavyas
(B) Panini
(C) Shukadeva
(D) Balmiki

29. Lord Buddha preached the following four Noble Truths. Put them in correct order using the code given below—
1. There is suffering
2. There is cessation of suffering
3. There is a path leading to cessation of suffering
4. There is cause of suffering
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4, 3

30. Consider—
Assertion (A) : Nehru had no regard for the Upanishads.
Reason (R) : His attitude was scientific.
Now select your answer from the following codes—
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

31. Adi Shankaracharya established four mathas. These mathas are situated at—
(A) Sringeri, Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag
(B) Dwarka, Joshimath, Prayag, Kanchi
(C) Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri, Varanasi
(D) Joshimath, Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri

32. The Third Sangam was held at—
(A) Tuticorin
(B) Arrikkamedu
(C) Madurai
(D) Ernakulam

33. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Satya Shodhak Samaj’ ?
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Jyotiba Phule
(C) Narayan Guru
(D) Ramaswamy Naicker

34. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Muhammad Tughlaq's scheme of token currency was a failure.
Reason (R) : Muhammad Tughlaq had no proper control our the issuance of coins.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

35. By which name was Chanakya known in his childhood ?
(A) Ajaya
(B) Chanakya
(C) Vishnugupta
(D) Deogupta

36. Rock cut architecture in Harappan culture context has been found at—
(A) Kalibangan
(B) Dhaulabira
(C) Kotdiji
(D) Amri

37. Where was first Madarsa set up by the British in India ?
(A) Madras (Chennai)
(B) Bombay (Mumbai)
(C) Aligarh
(D) Calcutta (Kolkata)

38. Who among the following Pakistani National was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government ?
(A) Liaqat Ali Khan
(B) M.A. Jinnah
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Muhammad Iqbal

39. ‘Bull’ in Buddhism is associated with which event of Buddha's life ?
(A) Birth
(B) Great departure
(C) Enlightenment
(D) Mahaparinirvan

40. Who was the Guru of Shivaji ?
(A) Namdev
(B) Ramdas
(C) Eknath
(D) Tukaram

41. Ibn Batuta, the famous traveller came from—
(A) Portugal
(B) Morocco
(C) China
(D) Tibet

42. Which of the following would be the most accurate description of the Mauryan Monarcy under Ashoka ?
(A) Enlightened despotism
(B) Centralised autocracy
(C) Oriental despotism
(D) Guided democracy

43. Amir Khusrau was a musician and—
(A) Sufi saint
(B) Persian and Hindavi writer, and scholar
(C) Historian
(D) All of the above

44. Lahore was Ranjeet Singh's political capital which city was called his religious capital ?
(A) Amritsar
(B) Anandpur Shahib
(C) Gujranwala
(D) Peshawar

45. ‘Permanent Settlement’ the system of revenue collection was introduced in India by—
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Hastings
(D) Lord Cornwallis

46. Herodotus is considered as the father of—
(A) History
(B) Geography
(C) Political Science
(D) Philosophy

47. Who founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 ?
(A) Shivanath Shastri
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Jyotiba Phule
(D) None of these

48. The Italian traveller who left very praiseworthy account of Vijayangar Empire was—
(A) E Barbosa
(B) Manucci
(C) Marco Polo
(D) Nicolo Conti

49. Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya was the—
(A) Son of Chandra Gupta I
(B) Father of Skanda Gupta
(C) Son of Samudra Gupta
(D) Grand father of Kumar Gupta I

50. Chhattrapati Shivajee died in the year—
(A) 1680 A.D.
(B) 1666 A.D.
(C) 1687 A.D.
(D) 1689 A.D.
Answers :
26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A)
30. (D) Gandhiji favoured cottage industry, while Nehruji recommended heavy industrialisation.
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B)
37. (D) Warren Hastings set up Madarsa in Calcutta in 1781.
38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (C)48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (A)

History and Culture of India-Objective GK Questions

51. Who was the Hindu king shown playing veena on the ancient-coins ?
(A) Shivajee
(B) Vikramaditya
(C) Samudra Gupta
(D) Ashoka

52. What was unique to Harappan civilization in comparision to Egyptian and mesopotamian civilization ?
(A) Pictographic script
(B) Temples
(C) Rectangular town planning
(D) Drainage system

53. The Ryotwari settlement was introduced by British in—
(A) Bengal presidency only
(B) Bombay presidencey only
(C) Madras presidency only
(D) Bombay and Madras presidency

54. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first try the weapon of ‘Satyagraha’ ?
(A) Champaran
(B) Ahemdabad mill strike
(C) Dandi
(D) South Africa

55. Which pair threw a bomb at carriage that they believed was occupied by Kingsford, the unpopular judge at Muzaffarpur ?
(A) Ram Prasad Bismil, Surya Sen (1906)
(B) Khudi Ram Bose, Prafulla Chaki (1908)
(C) Jatindra Nath Das, Ashfaqullah (1910)
(D) None of these

56. Which one of the following was not a president of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Sir William Wedderburn
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Purushottam Das Tondon
(D) None of these

57. Which of the following movements was launched along with Khilafat Movement ?
(A) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Home Rule Movement
(D) Swadeshi Movement

58. Match the method of protest against the British with its propounder—
List-I
(a) Method of direct action
(b) Non-cooperation means
(c) Method of petitions and resolutions
(d) Acts of courage to rouse the mass revolt by masses
List-II
1. Gokhale
2. Bhagat Singh
3. Tilak
4. Gandhijee
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 4 2 1

59. ‘Kesari’ was—
(A) An organisation for social reforms started by Tilak
(B) An english language paper owned by S.N. Banerjee
(C) A Marathi Newspaper
(D) None of these

60. The main weakness of Revolt of 1857 was lack of—
(A) External help
(B) Discipline among rebel soldiers
(C) Modern weapons
(D) United and coordinate efforts by rebels

61. Of the following who is credited for the unification of India after Independence ?
(A) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) C. Rajgopalachari
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

62. ‘Rajtarangini’ has been written by—
(A) Jayadev
(B) Vidhyapati
(C) Kalhan
(D) Chandarbardai

63. When India got Independence the Prime Minister of England was ?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Clement R. Atlee
(C) Neville Chamberlain
(D) None of these

64. Alexander invaded India in—
(A) 298 B.C.
(B) 202 B.C.
(C) 303 B.C.
(D) 327 B.C.

65. Who was the founder of Pala dynasty ?
(A) Gopal
(B) Devapal
(C) Dharmapal
(D) None of these

66. Who did not participate in the Revolt of 1857 ?
(A) Tantiya Tope
(B) Bhagat Singh
(C) Nana Sahib
(D) Rani Lakshmibai

67. Gandhiji first experiment with Satyagraha came up in—
(A) Dundee
(B) Champaran
(C) Barisal
(D) Natal

68. Fa-hien visited India during the reign of—
(A) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(B) Bindusara
(C) Chandra Gupta II
(D) Bimbisara

69. The third battle of Panipat took place in—
(A) 1760
(B) 1761
(C) 1762
(D) 1763

70. In which century was the Bahmani kingdom founded ?
(A) 15th
(B) 14th
(C) 13th
(D) 16th

71. When was the battle of Buxar fought ?
(A) 1764
(B) 1766
(C) 1767
(D) 1761

72. Chola-period is mostly known for which of the following ?
(A) Gramsabha
(B) Battle against Rashrakut
(C) Trade with Ceylon
(D) Development of Tamil culture

73. Megasasthenes was the ambassador of the following—
(A) Seleukos
(B) Alexander
(C) Darius
(D) Greek

74. Which of the following is the oldest dynasty ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Gupta
(C) Kushan
(D) Kanva

75. What was the main effect of vedic culture an Indian history ?
(A) Progress of Metaphysics
(B) Development of Sanskrit
(C) Solidification of race
(D) None of these
Answers :
51 (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (B) 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (A)73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B)

History and Culture of India-Objective GK Questions

75. What was the main effect of vedic culture an Indian history ?
(A) Progress of Metaphysics
(B) Development of Sanskrit
(C) Solidification of race
(D) None of these

76. Title of Vikramaditya was adopted by—
(A) Ashok
(B) Chandra Gupta II
(C) Kanishka
(D) Samudra Gupta

77. Which important event took place in the history of India in the year 1526 ?
(A) The first battle of Panipat
(B) The second battle of Panipat
(C) Defeat of Humayun at the hands of Sher Shah Suri
(D) None of these

78. The Rigveda contains—
(A) Rituals to be adopted by people
(B) Hymns in honour of the Gods
(C) Yognas to be performed
(D) History of the Vedic period

79. In which language was the Shrimad Bhagavad Gita originally written ?
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Apabhramsa
(C) Prakrit
(D) Pali

80. The principle that distinguishes Jainism from Buddhism is the—
(A) Practice of the eight-fold path
(B) Rejection of the infallibility of the Vedas
(C) Attribution of a soul to all beings and things
(D) Belief in rebirth

81. With whose reign is the Gandhara School of art associated ?
(A) Kanishka
(B) Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(C) Harsha
(D) Ashoka

82. Shivaji died in the year—
(A) 1676
(B) 1677
(C) 1678
(D) 1680

83. In which century did the famous Chinese pilgrim Fahien visit India ?
(A) 4th century A.D.
(B) 5th century A.D.
(C) 6th century A.D.
(D) 7th century A.D.

84. Buddha lived approximately at the same time as—
(A) Confucius
(B) Moses
(C) Prophet Mohammad
(D) Hammurabi

85. The division of Mauryan Society into seven classes was particularly mentioned in—
(A) Kautilya's Arthasastra
(B) Ashokan edicts
(C) The Puranas
(D) The Indica of Megasthenes

86. The first railway line in India was opened in the year—
(A) 1833
(B) 1853
(C) 1857
(D) 1861

87. The Indus Valley civilization was Non-Aryan because—
(A) It was urban
(B) It had a pictographic script
(C) It had an agricultural economy
(D) It extended up to the Narmada Valley

88. All the following statements regarding the Indus Valley civilization are correct, except—
(A) The Indus Valley civilization was an advanced urban civilization
(B) Iron was not known to the people
(C) It is difficult to say to which race the people belonged
(D) The people knew nothing about agriculture

89. Which of the following statements is not true about Nagara style of architecture ?
(A) Early Gupta style
(B) Couciform plan and the Rekha
(C) Shikhara (Tower)
(D) Buddhist influence

90. The local name of Mohanjodaro is—
(A) Mound of the living
(B) Mound of the Great
(C) Mound of the Dead
(D) Mound of the Survivor

91. Tripitakas are the Sacred books of the—
(A) Jains
(B) Hindus
(C) Muslims
(D) Buddhists

92. Which book was written by Dadabhai Naoroji an Indian poverty and economy under British rule ?
(A) Indian Economy under British Raj
(B) British Rule and Economic drain of India
(C) Poverty and Un-British rule in India
(D) Economic drain and poverty of India

93. The universities of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay were founded in the year—
(A) 1845
(B) 1854
(C) 1857
(D) 1861

94. In whose court was a Chinese embassy sent by T'ang Emperor ?
(A) Rajaraja I
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Harsha
(D) Parantaka I

95. The Paintings of Ajanta depict stories of the—
(A) Ramayana
(B) Mahabharata
(C) Jatakas
(D) Panchatantra

96. Who were the contemporaries of Kanishka ?
(A) Kamban, Banbhatta, Asvagosha
(B) Nagarjuna, Asvagosha, Vasumitra
(C) Asvagosha, Kalidasa, Nagarjuna
(D) Asvagosha, Kamban

97. Buddha's preachings were mainly related to—
(A) Belief in one god
(B) Practice of rituals
(C) Purity of thought and conduct
(D) Idol worship

98. The most important cause of the downfall of the Vijay Nagar empire was—
(A) Rivalries within the empire
(B) Unity among the Muslim rulers of Bijapur, Golconda and Ahmadnagar
(C) Rebellion of the Hindu Feudatories
(D) Weak successors of Krishna devaraya

99. Mahabalipuram was established by the—
(A) Pallavas
(B) Pandyas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

100. Jaideva, the famous author of Gita Govinda was the Court Poet of—
(A) Harsha (7th century A.D.)
(B) Prithviraj Chauhan (12th century A.D.)
(C) Lakshmanasena of Bengal (12th-13th century A.D.)
(D) None of these

History and Culture of India-Objective GK Questions

101. Who founded for Matthas in the four corners of India ?
(A) Shankaracharya
(B) Ramanujacharya
(C) Bhaskaracharya
(D) Madhvacharya

102. Purushasukta is found in the—
(A) Bhagavad Gita
(B) Manusmriti
(C) Rigveda
(D) Atharva Veda

103. Mughal painting flourished during the reign of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb

104. The Indus Valley civilization specialized in—
(A) Town planning
(B) Architecture
(C) Craftsmanship
(D) All of these

105. Shivaji was crowned in the year—
(A) 1664
(B) 1666
(C) 1670
(D) 1674

106. Buddhism was introduced in China in the—
(A) Third century B.C.
(B) First century B.C.
(C) First century A.D.
(D) Third century A.D.

107. Where is well-known Dilwara temple located ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan

108. Who was the founder of Brahma Samaj ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Arvind Ghosh
(C) Vivekanand
(D) Swami Dayanand Sarswati

109. When was Islam founded ?
(A) 7th century
(B) 5th century
(C) 3rd century B.C.
(D) 5th century B.C.

110. Who among the following was endowed with Naval power ?
(A) Badami Chalukya
(B) Bengi Chalukya
(C) Chola
(D) Rashtrakoot

111. Who was the last king of Maurya dynasty ?
(A) Brihadrath
(B) Kunala
(C) Samprati
(D) Salisuka

112. Who was not a member of cabinet mission ?
(A) Pathic Lawrance
(B) John Siman
(C) Stafford Cripps
(D) A.V. Alexander

113. Who was the founder of Prarthna Samaj ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Atmaram Panduranga
(D) Dayanand Saraswati

114. Who founded ‘Anushilan Samiti’ ?
(A) Pulin Bihari Das
(B) Pramatha Nath Mitra
(C) Swami Saradanand
(D) Barindra Kumar Ghosh

115. Who wrote the Song ‘Sare Jahan Se Achchha’ ?
(A) Ghalib
(B) Iqbal
(C) Kaifee Azmi
(D) Sahir Ludhianvi

116. Who abolished the ‘Iqta’ system ?
(A) Babur
(B) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Iltutmish
(D) Alauddin Khilji

117. Who was the founder of ‘Atmiya Sabha’ ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Rabindranath Tagor
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) Aurobinda Ghosh

118. Sudraka's Mrichchhakatikam' is a—
(A) Drama
(B) Novel
(C) Poem
(D) Shrot Story

119. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order ?
(A) Kumar Gupta — Samudra Gupta Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(B) Kumar Gupta — Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya, Samudra Gupta
(C) Samudra Gutpa—Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya — Kumara Gupta
(D) Samudra Gupta — Kumara Gupta — Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya

120. The battle of Kanwaha was fought between—
(A) Humayun and Mahmud Lodi
(B) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Babur and Rana Sougha
(D) Humayun and Sher Khan

121. In which century was the ancient Vijayanagar city founded ?
(A) 17th century
(B) 16th century
(C) 15th century
(D) 14th century

122. Consider the following statements—
1. The British crown had assumed direct rule in India before the sepoy mutiny.
2. Lord Canning was made the first viceroy and Governor General after the end of the rule of the East Indian Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

123. With reference to Lord Cornwallis's permanent settlement, which one of the following, Statements is not correct ?
(A) It created a limited proprietary right of Zamindars on the land
(B) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars
(C) It had left no police work for Zamindars
(D) It recognized the right of tenants due to which land lords could never oust them

124. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan

125. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of—
(A) Ahmad Shah
(B) Farrukh Siyar
(C) Jahandar Shah
(D) Muhammad Shah
Answers:
101. (A)
102. (C)
103. (B)
104. (D)
105. (D)
106. (C)
107. (D)
108. (A) Raja Rammohan Roy had founded the Brahma Samaj in 1828 in Kolkata.
109. (A)
110. (C)
111. (A)
112. (B) The Cabinet Mission, which came to India in March 1946, consisted of three ministers of the New British Cabinet Lord Pethick Lawrance, Secretary of State for India, Siv Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade and Mr. A.V. Alexander, first Lord of the Admiralty. The main purpose being—
(a) Preparatory discussions with elected representative to secure agreement on framing a constitution.
(b) Setting up a constituent assembly.
(c) Setting up of viceroy's executive council with support of the main Indian parties. John Simen was the Chairman of Indian Statutory Commission popularly known as Simon Commission appointed in November 1927. In May 1930 Simon Commission report was published.

113. (C)
114. (B)
115. (B)

116. (D) Iqtas were land granted to followers and officers casually military. Alauddin Khilji (1296- 1316) abolished Zamindari in Khalisa land and no Iqta was allotted in the Doab area. Land revenue was fixed on the basis of measurement of land and fixed. 1/5th of the produce. During Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (1325-51) Kharaj (10% of produce), Zakat calone for Muslims), Jaziya, Khans (20% of spoils of war) and Sharb (irrigation tax) were levied. Iltutmish (1210-36) Babur (1526-30).

117. (A) ‘Atmiya Sabha’ was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy in 1815 in Kolkata. He was also the founder of Brahma Samaj in 1828 in Kolkata. Swami Vivekananda founded Ramkrishna Mission in 1897 in Belur. Ravindranath Tagore opened a residential School in 1901 at Balepur. Swami Vivekananda established Vedant Samaj. Aurobinda Ghose (1872-1950) was alleged to be guilty in Alipore conspiracy case. He setted at Puducherry and founded an Ashram at Auroville.

118. (A)
119. (C)
120. (C)
121. (D)
122. (B)
123. (D)
124. (D)
125. (D)
History and Culture of India-Objective GK Questions

126. The Governor-General associated with the prohibition of Sati was—
(A) Cornwalis
(B) Bentinck
(C) Wellesley
(D) Amherst

127. The capital of Shasanka was—
(A) Karnasubana
(B) Mahabalipuram
(C) Kamlhipuram
(D) Kannauj

128. The book written by Hieun Tsang is called—
(A) Shakuntala
(B) Indica
(C) Si-yu-ki
(D) Yeun-chi

129. Who wrote ‘Rajtarangini’ ?
(A) Kalhan
(B) Kalidas
(C) Abul Fazl
(D) Ibn Batuta

130. The first battle of Panipat took place in—
(A) 1526
(B) 1528
(C) 1626
(D) 1628

131. The oldest Veda is—
(A) Rig Veda
(B) Sama Veda
(C) Yajur Veda
(D) Atharva Veda

132. Pseudonym of Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay was—
(A) Bhanu Singh
(B) Anila Devi
(C) Nillohit
(D) Kalkut

133. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in the year—
(A) 1790
(B) 1793
(C) 1799
(D) 1801

134. Which one of the following may be regarded as the first labour association in India ?
(A) The Bombay worker's Association
(B) The Bombay millhands' Association
(C) The Indian workers' Union
(D) The Printer's Union Calcutta

135. Who was the Sikh Guru to be salughtered by Aurangzeb ?
(A) Ramdas
(B) Teg Bahadur
(C) Arjundev
(D) Gobind Singh

136. The All-India Kisan Sabha was formed in—
(A) 1926
(B) 1936
(C) 1946
(D) 1956

137. Who wrote ‘Akbarnama’ ?
(A) Aul Fazl
(B) Faizi
(C) Shaik Mubarak
(D) Tanse

138. Who was called ‘Chanakya of Maratha Politics’ ?
(A) Baji Rao II
(B) Balaji Viswanath
(C) Nana Pharnabis
(D) Mahadaji Sindia

139. Who was the Mughal Emperor to have lifted the Zizyaon Hindus ?
(A) Babar
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shah Jahan

140. “I am giving you a Muslim province”—who said ?
(A) Fazlul Haque
(B) Lord Curzon
(C) Stafford Cripps
(D) Lord Mountbatten

141. Who converted Sikhs into a martial race ?
(A) Arjundev
(B) Gobind Singh
(C) Hargovind
(D) Teg Bahadur

142. Who was called ‘The Akbar of Kashmir’ ?
(A) Zainul Abedin
(B) Hussain Shah
(C) Balban
(D) Sujauddoullah

143. Which one of the following was an émigré Communist Journal of M.N. Roy ?
(A) Kishan Sabha
(B) The worker
(C) Vanguard
(D) Anushilan

144. Who founded All India Harijan Singh ?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Jayprakash Narayan
(D) Raj Narayan

145. Who was known as ‘the parrot of Hindustan’ ?
(A) Amir Khusro
(B) Malik Muhammad Jaisy
(C) Roy Vonmal
(D) Purandar Khan

146. Who was the Muslim General to have conquered Bengal in 13th Century A.D. ?
(A) Afzal Khan
(B) Iktiaruddin-bin-Baktiar Khilji
(C) Chenghiz Khan
(D) Temuchin

147. Who was the Chola king to have conquered Bengal?
(A) Rajaraja
(B) Rajendra Chola I
(C) Rajendra Chola II
(D) Rajadhiraja

148. Who was the Hindu Saint to have as disciple both Hindus and Muslims ?
(A) Sre Chaitanya
(B) Ramanuja
(C) Rabidas
(D) Namdev

149. Who was among the Mughal Emperors, the ‘Zinda Pir’ to the Sunnis ?
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Akbar
(C) Babar
(D) Humayun

150. Aim of the Swarajya Party was to—
(A) Agitate for total freedom
(B) Baycott the Congress moves
(C) Enter the legislature and wreck the Government from within
(D) Resort toextremism

Answers :
126. (A) 127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (A)
130. (A) Babur (1526-30) defeated Ibrahim Lodhi in the 1st Battle of Panipat in 1526 to lay the foundation of the Mughal dynasty.
131. (A)
132. (B) Pseudonym of Rabindra Nath Tagore—Bhanusingha
Pseudonym of Sarat Chandra — Anila Devi
Pseudonym of Sunil Gangopadhyay — Nillohit
Pseudonyam of Sararesh Basu — Kalkut.
133. (B) 134. (B) 135. (B) 136. (B) 137. (A) 138. (C) 139. (B) 140. (B) 141. (B) 142. (A)
143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (A) 146. (B) 147. (B) 148. (D) 149. (A) 150. (C)